Faith Healings, The Prosperity Gospel, & Other Questionable Teachings

John 10:34 - A quotation from Ps 82:6. Technically the Psalms are not part of the OT "law" (which usually referred to the five books of Moses), but occasionally the term "law" was applied to the entire OT, as here. The problem in this verse concerns the meaning of Jesus' quotation from Ps 82:6. It is important to look at the OT context: The whole line reads "I say, you are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you." Jesus will pick up on the term "sons of the Most High" in 10:36, where he refers to himself as the Son of God. The psalm was understood in rabbinic circles as an attack on unjust judges who, though they have been given the title "gods" because of their quasi-divine function of exercising judgment, are just as mortal as other men. What is the argument here? It is often thought to be as follows: If it was an OT practice to refer to men like the judges as gods, and not blasphemy, why did the Jewish authorities object when this term was applied to Jesus? This really doesn't seem to fit the context, however, since if that were the case Jesus would not be making any claim for "divinity" for himself over and above any other human being - and therefore he would not be subject to the charge of blasphemy. Rather, this is evidently a case of arguing from the lesser to the greater, a common form of rabbinic argument. The reason the OT judges could be called gods is because they were vehicles of the word of God (cf. 10:35). But granting that premise, Jesus deserves much more than they to be called God. He is the Word incarnate, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world to save the world (10:36). In light of the prologue to the Gospel of John, it seems this interpretation would have been most natural for the author. If it is permissible to call men "gods" because they were the vehicles of the word of God, how much more permissible is it to use the word "God" of him who is the Word of God?

Psalms 82:1 - The phrase... ('adat 'el, "assembly of El") appears only here in the OT. (1) Some understand "El" to refer to God himself. In this case he is pictured presiding over his own heavenly assembly. (2) Others take ... as a superlative here ("God stands in the great assembly"), as in Ps 36:6 and 80:10. (3) The present translation assumes this is a reference to the Canaanite high god El, who presided over the Canaanite divine assembly. (See Isa 14:13, where El's assembly is called "the stars of El.") In the Ugaritic myths the phrase 'dt 'ilm refers to the "assembly of the gods," who congregate in King Kirtu's house, where Baal asks El to bless Kirtu's house (see G. R. Driver, Canaanite Myths and Legends, 91). If the Canaanite divine assembly is referred to here in Ps 82:1, then the psalm must be understood as a bold polemic against Canaanite religion. Israel's God invades El's assembly, denounces its gods as failing to uphold justice, and announces their coming demise. For an interpretation of the psalm along these lines, see W. VanGemeren, "Psalms," EBC 5:533-36.

Psalms 82:6 - Normally in the OT the title Most High belongs to the God of Israel, but in this context, where the mythological overtones are so strong, it probably refers to the Canaanite high god El (see v. 1, as well as Isa 14:13).

Verses 82:1 & 6 are the really confusing verses, so they are the ones that I've included the translations for. I've place a (...) in some areas because the NetBible says has the actual Hebrew text, which I'm not quite sure how to duplicate. Visit the link below and look up Psalms 82 to see all of their footnotes.